I’ve been reading about this sort of thing for a long time and I am seeking some clarification if someone can give it to me.
My friend actually has an issue at the moment where she was married to her husband who had been living a double life for over 10 years.
When she found out she started divorce proceedings and it later turned out that he had took out several loan agreements in her name and forged the signature.
Some signatures are blatantly forged you would think a 3 year old wrote them.
However our barrister seems to think that the creditors don’t need the original documents to force her to pay and the final hearing judge needs to decide if he believes they are forged or not to decide if they come out of her settlement or his.
Basically I’m asking for clarification on what law states that the original signed documents need to be present for a debt to be collected
Thanks