So, I just read the article on the main site about the "loan scam", and I had a question about it. The argument therein seems to rest on the fact that banks cannot use depositors' money to find loans, when in fact that's not true at all. Banks can use between 97 and 100% of deposits, depending on the type of account, to fund loans in the US. That's why deposits are insured by the federal government. Similar rules exist in the UK and everywhere else. So, can someone please explain how the argument presented holds up in that light?