woodman wrote:I really cannot see the point you're trying to make.
I shall return to that below.
The situation you pose, (that you and your brother would buy a car that you have no intention to ever make use of yourselves and are willing to let someone else use and even register it with dvla) is not really a believable situation.
I suggest it is not too different from the situation with drivers of company cars. The company owns the car, the driver is the keeper.
Now, for various reasons (i.e tax efficiency, accountancy [CAPEX vs OPEX]) companies could structure the ownership of the cars differently, e.g. a holding company could own the car and lease it to the company for use by the employees. If the asserts of the holding company were moved (for whatever reason - including it being bought out by another company), that could include the ownership of the car changing.
By posing the situation as a change of ownership between myself and my brother, with you as the 'keeper' one simply reduces the situation to its essentials. i.e. removes complexities which could cloud the underlying issues.
Hence I suggest that the situation I pose is not unreasonable.
The answer to your question is quite an obvious one............NO, the DVLA would not make any claim to be informed as the keeper (the one who registered the vehicle) has not changed and the DVLA could not possibly be aware that the alleged owner has sold it.
Thank you.
That was what I was expecting (as you state it is - or should be obvious), especially given that DVLA claim to only be interested in keepers not owners.
So given that, how does a document purporting to address the 'keepership' of a car imply anything about the 'ownership'?
Which is rather the point I was trying to make. I understood the suggestion from the start of this thread to be that the document displayed could imply that DVLA are taking a position (stated or implied) upon the 'ownership' of a car. i.e. "DVLA admits you don't own vehicle".
I would suggest that a document indicating it provides "no proof of ownership", does not provide "proof of no ownership". They are completely different concepts.
How would you be able to show your brother that you actually owned the property?
Again, I suggest this is irrelevant. But to give examples it could include any one or more of:
a) The receipt / bill of sale for when I acquired the car.
b) A contract/agreement between you and me for use of the vehicle
c) Simple trust between my Brother and I (especially if the machine is of low value)
Note that I did not (that I recall) state or imply that your use of the car was for free, simply that you could use it whereas I would own it.
Hopefully that makes my reasoning clear?
I was taking a position that the document does not amount to "DVLA admits you don't own vehicle', and trying to show logic which leads to that conclusion.
Likewise.